I know I said I wouldn't post anymore on this thread, but I do want to just clarify the rules here.
First, not that it matters what most think, but most do think they got the call correct. What does matter is that MLB agrees with the call as well.
Second, there does not have to be intent for obstruction to occur. It was called when his feet went up in the air after the play.
http://www.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/runner_7.jsp?partnerId=as_mlb_20131027_13653334
Third, the image above posted by Hart5150 actual proves that the fielder was in the runners baseline. By the rules of baseball, the runner sets the baseline. Since that was where the runner was at the time and the fielder was directly in line created by the runner and home-plate, he was technically in the runners baseline.
I know it sucks that a game was ended on something like this, particularly for Sox fans, but they did get the call correct.
The fielder has the right to field the ball .... NO ?
What happens if he had caught the ball , or stopped the ball from going into the outfield, presuming the runner still went to home ... whats the call then ?